I am a salaried employee in our local school district.  On July 1st our salary was reduced by 1/26th to accomodate for a 53 week FY vs. a 52 week FY.  The explanation we were given was that because we will receive 27 pays instead of 26, the salary was reduced.  However, THAT 27th paycheck is essentially the 1st paycheck of the following FY.  There will be no additional paycheck for the FY in question.  If you're following me, is this a legal practice or are we basically being railroaded?  

If you are paid every other week, there will be an extra paycheck in some years.  The Company can legally argue they are paying you at the same salary rate even though they are reducing your paycheck to compensate for the additional check.  I'm assuming you have a CBA in place and I'll bet it doesn't specifically address this issue.  The force of "past practice" may be something to bring to the table but I wouldn't pursue it if your union's counsel suggests it will fail.  All you'll do is get the taxpayers rallied against your cause.